and I came across this passage:

“21 " 'If a man marries his brother's wife, it is an act of impurity; he has dishonored his brother. They will be childless.”

Leviticus 20:21

That reminded me of another passage of the bible I'd heard about before, so I did a small search through the bible and found:

“If brothers are living together and one of them dies without a son, his widow must not marry outside the family. Her husband's brother shall take her and marry her and fulfill the duty of a brother-in-law to her. 6 The first son she bears shall carry on the name of the dead brother so that his name will not be blotted out from Israel.

7 However, if a man does not want to marry his brother's wife, she shall go to the elders at the town gate and say, "My husband's brother refuses to carry on his brother's name in Israel. He will not fulfill the duty of a brother-in-law to me." 8 Then the elders of his town shall summon him and talk to him. If he persists in saying, "I do not want to marry her," 9 his brother's widow shall go up to him in the presence of the elders, take off one of his sandals, spit in his face and say, "This is what is done to the man who will not build up his brother's family line." 10 That man's line shall be known in Israel as The Family of the Unsandaled.”

-Deuteronomy 25:5-10

This seems like a very blatent contradiction in the intention of the bible. How would a bible believer justify this with his belief in the bible? Is this solid enough proof to claim that parts of the bible at least must be false?

I imagine that Christians/Jews will say the Leviticus verse does not apply if the brother is dead.

Dude, that's the OT. We have this thing called the NT now.

quote:Originally posted by fallinghouse:

I imagine that Christians/Jews will say the Leviticus verse does not apply if the brother is dead.

/thread

quote:Originally posted by Hare_Geist:

Dude, that's the OT. We have this thing called the NT now.

/thread

quote:Originally posted by fallinghouse:

I imagine that Christians/Jews will say the Leviticus verse does not apply if the brother is dead.

Catch me if I'm wrong, but how the hell is one supposed to marry your brother's wife if your brother isn't dead? If they are still married, you cannot marry her, and if they are no longer married then she is no longer your brother's wife.

quote:Originally posted by Hare_Geist:

Dude, that's the OT. We have this thing called the NT now.

"Bi·ble /ˈbaɪbəl/ Pronunciation Key - Show Spelled Pronunciation[bahy-buhl] Pronunciation Key - Show IPA Pronunciation

–noun 1. the collection of sacred writings of the Christian religion, comprising the Old and New Testaments.

2. Also called Hebrew Scriptures. the collection of sacred writings of the Jewish religion: known to Christians as the Old Testament."

I believe my use of the terminology was correct.

quote:I believe my use of the terminology was correct.

Why the fuck do people take me seriously when I'm joking? Wasn't the winking emoticon enough indication?

Jesus is fake.

/end thread.

Can't wait for the day even more evidence comes to the surface.

quote:Originally posted by Aseren:

Jesus is fake.

/end thread.

Can't wait for the day even more evidence comes to the surface.



Like the Gospel of Judas? Read it.

This thread should be closed for too many ppl posting ignorant stuff.

quote:Originally posted by ArmsMerchant:



Like the Gospel of Judas? Read it.

Please tell me you arent serious....

quote:Originally posted by SAMMY249:

This thread should be closed for too many ppl posting ignorant stuff.

Please troll elsewhere.

Not to sound like a complete ass, but congratulations on finding one of a freakin' bitch-ton of biblical contradictions. There are bunches of websites that have lists of them. Hell, you can even find a contradiction on the first damn page of the bible between Genesis 1 and 2.

[This message has been edited by Peanutbutter Soup (edited 02-27-2007).]

quote:Originally posted by Peanutbutter Soup:

Not to sound like a complete ass, but congratulations on finding one of a freakin' bitch-ton of biblical contradictions. There are bunches of websites that have lists of them. Hell, you can even find a contradiction on the first damn page of the bible between Genesis 1 and 2.



Ive been to some of these website and clicked ones at random and didnt find 1 contradiction so you are just misguided.

quote:Originally posted by T-BagBikerStar:

... but how the hell is one supposed to marry your brother's wife if your brother isn't dead? If they are still married, you cannot marry her, and if they are no longer married then she is no longer your brother's wife.



Hi T-BagBikerStar,

In your opening post, you quote Lev 20:21 (emphasis, obviously, is mine)

“21 " 'If a man marries his brother's wife, it is an act of impurity; he has dishonored his brother. They will be childless.”

Leviticus 20:21

Jesus sheds some light on this and on your question:



Mat 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:

Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

In Matt 19:4-6 Jesus basically says that while they are alive, they are still married.

Mat 19:4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,

Mat 19:5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?

Mat 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

God Bless,

johnny

quote:Originally posted by xtreem5150ahm:



Hi T-BagBikerStar,

In your opening post, you quote Lev 20:21 (emphasis, obviously, is mine)

“21 " 'If a man marries his brother's wife, it is an act of impurity; he has dishonored his brother. They will be childless.”

Leviticus 20:21

Jesus sheds some light on this and on your question:



Mat 5:31 It hath been said, Whosoever shall put away his wife, let him give her a writing of divorcement:

Mat 5:32 But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

In Matt 19:4-6 Jesus basically says that while they are alive, they are still married.

Mat 19:4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,

Mat 19:5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?

Mat 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

God Bless,

johnny

You have a fucked up Bible cause divorce(if i recall correctly)was invented by th pope.

quote:Originally posted by SAMMY249:

Ive been to some of these website and clicked ones at random and didnt find 1 contradiction so you are just misguided.

http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/jim_meritt/bible-contradictions.html

Jesus;s last words

Matt.27:46,50: "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?" that is to say, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" ...Jesus, when he cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost."

Luke23:46: "And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, "Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:" and having said thus, he gave up the ghost."

John19:30: "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, "It is finished:" and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost."

Dont worry, there are contadictions in the quran aswell, Even know the muslims claim there isnt.

[This message has been edited by boozehound420 (edited 03-01-2007).]

quote:Originally posted by SAMMY249:

You have a fucked up Bible cause divorce(if i recall correctly)was invented by th pope.



Hi SAMMY249,

LOL.. i'm not Catholic, so i'm not under the pope's "say so".



Besides, the "rules" of "putting away your wife" i.e. divorce, is in the OT, which pre-dates the pope.

God Bless,

johnny

quote:Originally posted by boozehound420:

Originally posted by SAMMY249:

Ive been to some of these website and clicked ones at random and didnt find 1 contradiction so you are just misguided.

http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/jim_meritt/bible-contradictions.html (http: //www.infi dels.org/l ibrary/mod ern/jim_me ritt/bible -contradic tions.html )

Jesus;s last words

Matt.27:46,50: "And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, "Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?" that is to say, "My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?" ...Jesus, when he cried again with a loud voice, yielded up the ghost."

Luke23:46: "And when Jesus had cried with a loud voice, he said, "Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:" and having said thus, he gave up the ghost."

John19:30: "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said, "It is finished:" and he bowed his head, and gave up the ghost."

Dont worry, there are contadictions in the quran aswell, Even know the muslims claim there isnt.



Hi boozehound420,

Please show that these are contradictions and not just limited reports of what happened.



What do i mean by "just limited reports"?



Matthew has Jesus "crying with a loud voice" twice.

If Lukes, "cried with a loud voice" is the second one of Matthew, and John's "It is finished:" is part of that cry, then it could be something like this:

"Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?"

<< recieves vinegar >>

"Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:"

"It is finished:"

<< gave up the ghost >>

or perhaps,

"Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?"

<< recieves vinegar >>

"It is finished:"

<< bows head (as in prayer) >>

"Father, unto thy hands I commend my spirit:"

<< gave up the ghost >>



Please dont think i'm twisting these to fit what i want. I'm only presenting a couple theories on what might be the case..

And, I am only working with what you've provided. If it were more concern to me, that these were contradictions or that i was actually trying to defend the point... i would study the surrounding passages and the whole Books (to get clues of the themes that each of these writers were getting across in their text)..... but then, if it were that important to you, i suspect you could do the same, instead of taking infidels.org's word for it.



I like the second one (theory) because i think i read somewhere that the words rendered "It is finished:" could be understood to mean, "it is accomplished / complete".

When i was younger, i understood "it is finished" to mean "i'm dying" since i felt that fit with "gave up the ghost", but it seemed and odd statement to me, in that context... so it bugged me. I keep telling myself i should check a dictionary on that, but so far i havent.



... ok, i just checked Strong's.

G5055

teleō

tel-eh'-o

From G5056; to end, that is, complete, execute, conclude, discharge (a debt): - accomplish, make an end, expire, fill up, finish, go over, pay, perform.

OK, i'm no longer bugged.

There is another possibility:

The writers of these could be reporting only what they heard... or, what was relevant to the Book that they wrote.

The point i'm making is the same point that i think Jackketch has made, when he says, "read it like you would a newspaper".

A clue to this idea would be, why does Matthew tell us Jesus said, "Eli, eli, lama sabachthani?" and then give a translation?

Could this be relevant to the theme of Matthew? Or his audience?

God Bless,

johnny